Ted Pike NPN

One little tid bit of information that came out last year is a paper written by Ted Pike from the National Prayer Network. Some that believe Israelites migrated to Europe like myself may just want to simply ignore the paper and hope no person reads the thing. However, I do think that the people that do read it should have an explanation.

Link to Ted Pikes claim.

First of all Ted Pike is a Jew and has a vested interest in attempting to dispel the Israelite migration as being untrue. Although he has done a good job at showing the intrinsic differences between Talmudic Judaism and Christianity, and that Judaism is completely opposite of Christianity, my praise for him abruptly stops there.

The first thing that bothers me about this paper, is that it's addressed to "Christian Identity." This addressing of the information in itself shows that the man really doesn't understand that there are other denominations that believe that Israelites migrated to Europe, after all there are over 30,000 Christian Protestant denominations that do exist and others do believe this. For example this is a belief held by The world wide Church of God, British Israelism, Mormans (they also belive Judaites directly migrated to the United States), and the Amish. I am sure there are other denominations that believe this also.

I will not address this paper in its entirety, but rather will just simply touch on the more basic claimed flaws that it contains and will not address the items that are only subjective (open to interpretation). Therefore I will only talk about material that may be objective. The only real objective evidence it could contain if it were valid are as follows: the first point in which he claims that archaeology proves there were people in Europe prior to the Assyrian captivity in 721 B.C. Although this is true, it is only a half truth, he also claims that Judea was a pure racial stock which is false, and he claims that the bible refers to the Judeans as Jews instead of Edomites which is only half true.

  First, the bible is very clear that there were people migrating out of the Mediterranean area prior to the Assyrian Captivity. There were several Israelite nations in existence prior to the destruction of Palestine. Groups broke away at different times and to say that all Israelites migrated to Europe at exactly the same time would be incorrect, so he could be partially correct on this opinion. The bible talks about people breaking away as early as the Exodus from Egypt. In Numbers 1 a census was taken at the beginning and again in Numbers 26. During the Exodus about one third of the Israelites disappeared around 61,000 is the actual number. Although this census was taken of military men it is only reasonable to assume the overall population decreased also. It is estimated that Israel should have increased by another 150,000 while on the move so one can assume the true number would have been around 211,000  that broke away.

  When arriving to the promise land there was maritime activity as mentioned in the bible Genesis 49:13, Deuteronomy 33:17-19, and Judges 5:17-18. Although I could go on with other secular examples where historians such as Flavius Josephus and Herodotus have documented the travels of Israelite tribes. One classic example would be of Brutus the first king of Britain who came from Troy after the Greeks destroyed it in 1103 B.C..It would take less than a month to reach Britain by boat from Troy, and is quite believable.



Below is a video about the tribe of Dan for all that are interested.

Another point he makes which is false is that the Jews are a pure racial stock. The Edomite Nation was conquered by John Hyrcanus in 125 B.C. Edom was assimilated into Judea by Hyrcanus (which was a Jew as we know it today). Ted Pike fails to mention the book of Ezra 8 and 9 and Nehemiah 13 that mention only 3,500 Judaites returned to the multicultural land of Judea from Babylon, in which they promptly started race mixing with other peoples to include the Edomites. Judea was not a pure racial stock. Most Judeans were Edomites, either fully or partially.

Lastly, his claim of the bible using the word Jew instead of Edomite. The bible does use the word Jew to describe Judeans. However the word Jew did not even exist until the early 1800's. Then why is the word Jew in the bible some may ask? The original King James Bible 1611 edition does not contain the word Jew anywhere in it at all. The original words that were used are Judaite and Judean. This claim can be substantiated by any concordance just by looking up the word Jew and seeing what the original word was. The bible has been revised 57 times since 1611, and when they revise the bible they try to make it read easier, or they can add hidden agendas. During the mid 1800's the word Jew was added to the bible. The reason for this can be found by researching who owned the publishing houses both then and now. It is my opinion that to really understand the bible correctly one really has to study it with lexicons and concordances.

Another point about this is in John 8:33 the Jews (if you want to call them that) told Yashua Messiah that they were Abrahams children, Yashua did not argue with them on that point. They also added they have never been in bondage to any man. Yashua did not argue with that either. However if you think about it the only people that could have been from Abraham and not to have ever been in bondage to any man are the offspring of Esua, and of course his offspring are called Edomites!

I encourage all to study the word of Father Yahweh and not to take any persons word for what the bible says, Praise the Lord!